A -year-old G1P0 woman at weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. On admission, she provides a legally documented advance directive explicitly refusing a cesarean delivery under any circumstances, which she verbally confirms with the attending physician while demonstrating full decisional capacity.
Laboratory studies obtained on admission show:
Hemoglobin: g/dL
Platelets:
Leukocytes:
An epidural catheter is placed for analgesia. Fifteen minutes later, the patient experiences a syncopal episode and is temporarily unresponsive. Her blood pressure is mmHg and her pulse is /min. The uterus is soft between contractions with no apparent vaginal bleeding. The fetal heart rate tracing, which was previously reassuring, now demonstrates a prolonged deceleration to /min that has persisted for minutes with minimal variability. The cervix is cm dilated and effaced. Her husband, present at the bedside, is extremely anxious and urges the medical team to 'do whatever it takes to save the baby, including surgery.'
Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Left lateral maternal repositioning and intravenous ephedrine therapyCevap
- BObtain an emergency court order to perform a cesarean delivery
- CObtain consent from the husband to proceed with an emergent surgical delivery
- DInitiation of uncrossmatched packed red blood cell transfusion
- EInitiation of an amnioinfusion via an intrauterine pressure catheter