A -year-old nulliparous woman at weeks of gestation is evaluated in the labor unit. She was admitted hours ago following spontaneous rupture of membranes. She has been having irregular, mild contractions. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of with moderate variability and no decelerations. The uterine fundus is tender to palpation. Cervical examination reveals dilation and effacement. Purulent-appearing fluid is noted in the vaginal vault. When discussing possible interventions, the patient expresses severe anxiety about surgical procedures and states, 'I will absolutely not consent to a cesarean delivery under any circumstances, even if the baby is in distress.' She is fully conscious, competent, and understands the risks associated with her refusal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and oxytocin augmentationCevap
- BObservation and administration of oral acetaminophen
- CEmergent cesarean delivery under general anesthesia
- DInitiation of intravenous narrow-spectrum penicillin G monotherapy
- EObtain a court order to mandate a cesarean delivery for fetal benefit