An obstetrics triage nurse evaluates a primigravid patient at 40 weeks and 2 days gestation. The patient was admitted earlier in the day for an elective labor induction and is currently receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin. She reports severe, sharp pain with each contraction, and monitoring shows contractions occurring every 2.5 minutes on average. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, heart rate of 88/min, and respiratory rate of 18/min. To investigate a complaint of mild shortness of breath, an arterial blood gas on room air is drawn, demonstrating a pH of 7.44, PaCO₂ of 28 mm Hg, and PaO₂ of 102 mm Hg.
A continuous fetal heart rate monitor displays a baseline rate of 140/min accompanied by moderate variability. However, the tracing also reveals recurrent, symmetric decreases in the heart rate to a nadir of 120/min. The onset of each decrease is gradual, taking roughly 40 seconds to reach its lowest point. Notably, the nadir of each deceleration occurs consistently after the peak of the corresponding uterine contraction, returning to baseline only after the contraction ends. These specific decelerations are present following 60% of the recorded contractions. Pelvic examination confirms the cervix is 5 cm dilated and 90% effaced, with the fetal head at 0 station.
Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the intravenous oxytocin infusionCevap
- BProceed directly to an emergent cesarean delivery
- CPerform an amnioinfusion
- DMaintain the current management and reassure the patient
- EInstruct the patient to breathe into a paper bag to correct respiratory alkalosis