A 28-year-old primigravida at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Currently, her blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, heart rate is 82/min, and temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F). Vaginal examination reveals that the cervix is dilated to 6 cm, 90% effaced, with the fetal head at +1 station. External fetal monitoring shows a baseline fetal heart rate of 140/min with moderate variability. During uterine contractions, there are recurrent, symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate to 130/min. The onset, nadir, and recovery of each fetal heart rate decrease precisely align with the beginning, peak, and end of the respective uterine contraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdminister intravenous terbutaline
- BInitiate maternal left lateral positioning and administer oxygen
- Continue routine labor monitoringCevap
- DPerform a prophylactic amnioinfusion
- EPrepare for urgent cesarean delivery