A 31-year-old woman is evaluated on the maternity ward on postpartum day 2 for new-onset fever and pelvic pain. She delivered a full-term neonate via low transverse cesarean delivery following a diagnosis of active phase arrest. Her membranes were ruptured for 18 hours prior to the procedure. Over the last few hours, she has developed chills and worsening lower abdominal discomfort. Vital signs show a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure of 115/72 mm Hg, and heart rate of 110/min. Physical examination reveals clear lungs and soft, non-tender breasts. Abdominal examination demonstrates a soft abdomen with a well-approximated surgical incision that is free of erythema or induration. Deep palpation of the suprapubic region elicits marked uterine tenderness. The perineal pad contains a moderate amount of malodorous, purulent lochia. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AInitiate intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
- BObtain a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- Initiate intravenous clindamycin and gentamicinCevap
- DAdminister oral acetaminophen and continue routine postpartum care
- EPerform a lower extremity venous duplex ultrasound