A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted to the hospital at 39 weeks gestation in active labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Epidural analgesia is initiated for pain management when her cervical dilation is 5 cm. Fifteen minutes after the epidural placement, the patient complains of sudden dizziness and nausea. Her blood pressure drops to 88/55 mm Hg, and her pulse increases to 105/min. The external fetal monitor reveals a baseline fetal heart rate of 145/min with moderate variability. There are recurrent, symmetric, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that reach their nadir after the peak of each uterine contraction; the heart rate returns to baseline only after the contraction has ended. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- Repositioning the patient to the left lateral decubitus positionCevap
- BPreparation for an immediate emergency cesarean delivery
- CInitiation of a transcervical amnioinfusion
- DAdministration of subcutaneous terbutaline
- EPerformance of artificial rupture of membranes