A 24-year-old nulligravid woman is evaluated in the hospital on the third day of admission for pelvic inflammatory disease complicated by a 4-cm left tubo-ovarian abscess. On admission, she presented with a temperature of 38.9°C (102.0°F), severe lower abdominal pain, and a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm³. She was started on intravenous cefoxitin and oral doxycycline. Today, she reports feeling much better. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 14/min. Abdominal examination shows significantly decreased tenderness with no rebound or guarding. Pelvic examination reveals markedly improved cervical motion tenderness and a stable left adnexal fullness. She is tolerating a regular diet, and her leukocyte count has decreased to 9,200/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AContinue intravenous cefoxitin and oral doxycycline for a total of 14 days
- Switch to oral doxycycline and oral metronidazole to complete a 14-day courseCevap
- CSwitch to oral doxycycline monotherapy to complete a 14-day course
- DPerform computed tomography-guided percutaneous drainage of the abscess
- ESwitch to oral amoxicillin-clavulanate to complete a 14-day course