Seeking evaluation for increasingly erratic menstrual cycles, a 37-year-old nulligravid woman presents for a consultation. Over the last 14 months, her menses have occurred at unpredictable intervals of 45 to 70 days, accompanied by heavy flow lasting up to two weeks. During this time, she has also noticed new, coarse hair growth on her chin and chest. Her medical history is notable for asthma, obesity, and episodes of visual scotomata that precede severe, throbbing unilateral headaches. She currently takes no medications. She desires a reliable method of contraception as she anticipates becoming sexually active soon. Vital signs include a blood pressure of mmHg and a body mass index (BMI) of kg/m . A point-of-care urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic examination is limited by body habitus but reveals normal external genitalia and no palpable adnexal masses. Laboratory evaluation shows a normal serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a normal serum prolactin concentration. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Endometrial biopsyCevap
- BPlacement of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device
- CPrescription of combined oral contraceptives
- DMeasurement of serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
- EMeasurement of serum free thyroxine