A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 28 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and… — USMLE Step 2 CK

A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 28 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery triage for a sudden gush of clear vaginal fluid 18 hours ago, followed by the onset of lower abdominal pain and chills over the past 4 hours. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is $39.2^\circ\text{C}$ ( $102.6^\circ\text{F}$ ), blood pressure is $112/72\text{ mmHg}$ , pulse is $118/\text{min}$ , and respiratory rate is $18/\text{min}$ . Physical examination reveals a uterus that is diffusely tender to palpation. Speculum examination shows pooling of purulent fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix; the fluid turns nitrazine paper blue. Cervical examination reveals 1 cm dilation, 20% effacement, and -3 station. Fetal heart rate monitoring shows a baseline of $175/\text{min}$ with moderate variability and no decelerations. Tocodynamometry shows irregular uterine contractions every 8 to 10 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?

Administration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin, and induction of laborCevap
B
Administration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin, and emergency cesarean delivery
C
Administration of intravenous ampicillin and azithromycin, corticosteroids, and expectant management
D
Administration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin, magnesium sulfate for tocolysis, and corticosteroids
E
Administration of intravenous ampicillin and azithromycin, and induction of labor

Cevap

Administration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin, and induction of labor

This patient presents with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) complicated by clinical intra-amniotic infection (chorioamnionitis). The diagnosis is confirmed by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, purulent fluid, maternal tachycardia, and fetal tachycardia. The standard of care for intra-amniotic infection is the prompt administration of therapeutic broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics (typically ampicillin and gentamicin) and immediate delivery, regardless of gestational age. Vaginal delivery is the preferred route; therefore, induction of labor should be initiated. Although the cervix is unfavorable and the fetus is preterm, chorioamnionitis itself is not an indication for a primary cesarean delivery in the absence of other obstetric contraindications or a non-reassuring fetal status.

Adım Adım Çözüm

Establish the primary diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.

The patient has preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) complicated by clinical intra-amniotic infection (chorioamnionitis).

This is evidenced by maternal fever, tachycardia, uterine tenderness, purulent vaginal discharge, and fetal tachycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes.

Determine the appropriate timing of delivery.

Prompt delivery is indicated.

Intra-amniotic infection is an absolute indication for delivery to prevent severe maternal sepsis and fetal inflammatory response syndrome, regardless of gestational age or prematurity.

Determine the safest route of delivery.

Induction of labor for an anticipated vaginal delivery.

Vaginal delivery is the preferred route. Fetal tachycardia with moderate variability and no decelerations is expected with maternal fever and does not mandate an emergency cesarean delivery.

Select the appropriate pharmacological therapy.

Therapeutic broad-spectrum antibiotics (ampicillin and gentamicin).

Established clinical infection requires therapeutic broad-spectrum coverage, rather than the prophylactic latency antibiotic regimen (ampicillin and azithromycin) used for uncomplicated PPROM.

Anahtar Kavram

Management of preterm premature rupture of membranes complicated by intra-amniotic infection requires prompt administration of therapeutic broad-spectrum antibiotics and induction of labor, regardless of gestational age.

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Cevap

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