A female patient in her first pregnancy presents to the obstetric triage unit at term ( weeks of gestation). She reports the continuous leakage of clear vaginal fluid that began approximately hours prior to arrival. Currently, she is experiencing mild, irregular uterine contractions. Evaluation reveals a maternal core temperature of (), a blood pressure of mm Hg, and a pulse of /min. Fetal monitoring demonstrates a baseline heart rate of /min with moderate variability and an absence of periodic decelerations. Abdominal examination is notable for diffuse fundal tenderness. Pelvic examination shows the cervix is cm dilated and effaced. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AIntravenous ampicillin and gentamicin followed by immediate cesarean delivery
- BAcetaminophen administration, intravenous fluids, and expectant management
- CMaternal repositioning, amnioinfusion, and continuous fetal monitoring
- Intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin followed by oxytocin administrationCevap
- EIntravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam followed by oxytocin administration
Cevap
The most appropriate next step is the administration of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin followed by labor augmentation with oxytocin.
The patient's presentation of maternal fever, prolonged rupture of membranes, uterine tenderness, and maternal/fetal tachycardia is classic for intra-amniotic infection. Standard management consists of administering intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin to treat the infection, followed by oxytocin to expedite vaginal delivery, which is the safest route in the absence of other obstetric complications.
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Anahtar Kavram
Management of intra-amniotic infection (chorioamnionitis) requires the prompt initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics (ampicillin and gentamicin) and expediting delivery. Vaginal delivery is the preferred route, typically achieved via labor induction or augmentation with oxytocin.
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