A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for new-onset diarrhea. He was admitted days ago for a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation and was treated with a -day course of systemic glucocorticoids and levofloxacin. Over the last hours, he has had to watery bowel movements daily, accompanied by lower abdominal cramping and low-grade fever. Vitals: T (), HR , BP . Physical examination reveals mild, diffuse abdominal tenderness with normal bowel sounds; there is no rebound tenderness or guarding. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and serum creatinine of (baseline ). Stool enzyme immunoassay is positive for *Clostridioides difficile* glutamate dehydrogenase antigen and toxins A and B. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntravenous vancomycin
- BOral metronidazole
- Oral fidaxomicinCevap
- DIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- EOral loperamide