A -year-old man with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a prior appendectomy is evaluated in the hospital for sudden-onset, severe, diffuse abdominal pain and bilious vomiting. He was admitted days ago for community-acquired pneumonia. A sputum culture collected on admission grew *Streptococcus pneumoniae* that is susceptible to penicillin and ceftriaxone; however, he has been maintained on the empiric intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam started in the emergency department. He has not passed flatus for hours. Temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a markedly distended, tympanitic abdomen with diffuse rebound tenderness and involuntary guarding. Bowel sounds are absent. Lung auscultation reveals decreased crackles at the right base compared to admission.
Laboratory results are as follows:
| Test | Value |
|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | ( bands) |
| Serum sodium | |
| Serum potassium | |
| Serum chloride | |
| Serum bicarbonate | |
| Blood urea nitrogen | |
| Serum creatinine | |
| Serum lactate |
Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH:
pCO :
pO :
An upright abdominal radiograph demonstrates multiple dilated loops of small bowel with prominent air-fluid levels and a paucity of gas in the colon. No free air is visible under the diaphragm.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BNasogastric tube insertion, bowel rest, and intravenous fluid hydration
- CEndotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
- DBroaden antimicrobial therapy to intravenous meropenem and vancomycin
- EAdminister intravenous furosemide and nebulized albuterol