A 29-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation of severe, pervasive anxiety, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance that have been present for the past 8 months. She constantly worries about her finances, her family's health, and her job security, which has severely impaired her daily functioning. Her past psychiatric history is significant for a depressive episode at age 22. At that time, she was prescribed fluoxetine, but within two weeks of starting the medication, she developed a markedly elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and grandiosity, leading to hospitalization. Her symptoms resolved shortly after fluoxetine was discontinued. She is currently taking phenelzine for her anxiety, but she reports it is ineffective and she struggles with the dietary restrictions.
Recent laboratory tests, ordered by her primary care physician to investigate her fatigue, reveal the following:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) | ||
| Free thyroxine (T4) |
She requests a new medication for her anxiety and asks what her laboratory results mean.
Which of the following are appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Initiate cognitive-behavioral therapy focused on worry exposure and relaxation techniquesCevap
- Refer the patient for a pituitary MRI and comprehensive endocrinologic evaluationCevap
- CInitiate citalopram monotherapy to manage her generalized anxiety symptoms
- DDiscontinue phenelzine and immediately start sertraline to avoid a gap in anxiety treatment
- EDiagnose primary hypothyroidism based on the low free T4 and recommend initiating levothyroxine