Soru

A 26-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine well-woman examination. She feels healthy and has no complaints. She specifically denies any pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal bleeding, malodorous vaginal discharge, or dyspareunia. Her medical history is unremarkable. She is in a monogamous relationship and has used a copper intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception for the past four years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals normal external genitalia, a visually normal cervix with visible IUD strings, and no cervical motion tenderness or adnexal masses. A cervical cytology (Pap) smear is performed. Two weeks later, the pathology report indicates "negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy" but notes the incidental presence of Actinomyces-like organisms. The patient is contacted and confirms she remains completely asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?