A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, is evaluated on the labor and delivery unit at 41 weeks gestation during an induction of labor for a postterm pregnancy. She is currently receiving continuous intravenous oxytocin. The most recent cervical examination demonstrates 5 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and -1 station. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 minutes. Continuous fetal monitoring reveals a baseline heart rate of 135/min with minimal variability. Over the preceding 40 minutes, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates recurrent, gradual decreases in heart rate that initiate after the peak of each contraction, with the nadir occurring after the contraction has ceased. These heart rate decreases are present with more than half of the contractions. In response, the patient is repositioned to the left lateral decubitus position and administered an intravenous fluid bolus; however, the fetal monitor tracing remains unchanged following these interventions. Maternal vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AEmergency cesarean delivery
- BInitiation of transcervical amnioinfusion
- Discontinuation of the oxytocin infusionCevap
- DAdministration of subcutaneous terbutaline
- EApplication of a fetal scalp electrode