A -year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to sudden-onset, severe abdominal pain that started hours ago. She has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She was prescribed apixaban but admits to missing several doses over the past week. The patient also reports one episode of bilious vomiting at home. On arrival, her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is and irregularly irregular. Physical examination reveals a moderately distended abdomen with diffuse rigidity, involuntary guarding, and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate level of (normal: ). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Emergency exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BCT angiography of the abdomen
- CNasogastric tube decompression and serial abdominal examinations
- DIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and admission to the intensive care unit
- EMeasurement of arterial blood gases to calculate expected respiratory compensation