A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit regarding persistent vaginal discharge and spotting after intercourse. Three weeks ago, she presented with similar symptoms and was diagnosed with cervicitis. A nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) at that time was positive for *Chlamydia trachomatis* and negative for *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*. She was prescribed a 7-day course of oral doxycycline, which she completed. Her new male sexual partner was also treated, and they abstained from sexual activity for 10 days. Today, her vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals an erythematous, friable cervix with mucopurulent discharge. No cervical motion tenderness or adnexal tenderness is appreciated. A repeat NAAT for *C. trachomatis* and *N. gonorrhoeae* is negative. Wet mount microscopy shows numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes but no clue cells, trichomonads, or pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Nucleic acid amplification testing for Mycoplasma genitaliumCevap
- BEmpiric administration of single-dose oral azithromycin
- CColposcopy with directed cervical biopsy
- DReassurance and routine follow-up
- EPrescription of single-dose oral fluconazole