A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a right-sided limp that began this morning. He refuses to bear weight on his right leg. His parents report that he had a mild upper respiratory tract infection one week ago that resolved without treatment. He has no history of trauma. Temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination shows a well-appearing, playful boy. There is pain with internal rotation and abduction of the right hip, but no visible erythema, swelling, or warmth over the joint. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count: 9,000/mm³
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 15 mm/h
C-reactive protein (CRP): 5 mg/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Ibuprofen and outpatient observationCevap
- BUrgent ultrasound-guided hip aspiration
- CIntravenous ceftriaxone and vancomycin
- DMagnetic resonance imaging of the right hip
- EApplication of a spica cast