A 30-year-old nulliparous woman at 40 weeks and 1 day of gestation is managed on the labor unit. She was admitted 8 hours ago in spontaneous active labor. Four hours ago, her cervical examination revealed 6 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and 0 station. Spontaneous rupture of membranes occurred around that time, and the amniotic fluid was clear. An intrauterine pressure catheter was subsequently placed. Over the last four hours, she has consistently had 4 to 5 uterine contractions every 10 minutes, generating a total of 240 to 260 Montevideo units. Re-evaluation of her cervix just now shows no change from the prior examination. The maternal vital signs are within normal limits. The fetal heart rate tracing exhibits a baseline of 140/min, moderate baseline variability, the presence of accelerations, and no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIntravenous oxytocin augmentation
- BExpectant management and reassessment in 2 hours
- Cesarean deliveryCevap
- DProphylactic amnioinfusion with warmed saline
- EOperative vaginal delivery via vacuum extractor