A nulliparous woman presents to the labor unit at 40 weeks and 2 days of gestation reporting regular uterine contractions. She is 24 years old and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy. On initial assessment, her cervix is dilated to 5 cm and completely effaced, with the fetal vertex at 0 station. Over the next hour, her contractions occur every 3 minutes. The continuous fetal monitor displays a baseline heart rate of 130/min with moderate variability. However, there are recurrent, abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate to 80/min that reach their nadir within 15 seconds. These episodes last approximately 45 seconds and occur concurrently with the majority of the contractions before rapidly returning to baseline. The nursing staff assists the patient in changing to the left lateral decubitus position and administers an intravenous normal saline bolus, but the fetal heart rate pattern does not change. A subsequent cervical examination reveals no palpable umbilical cord.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AProceed immediately to cesarean delivery
- BAdminister intravenous terbutaline
- Perform an amnioinfusionCevap
- DReassure the patient and continue observation
- EPerform an operative vaginal delivery