During a well-child visit, the parents of a -year-old boy express concern about a change in their son's walking pattern. They report that for the past weeks, he has been favoring his right leg, especially after running or playing at the park. When asked if he has any pain, the child points to his right anterior thigh and the area just above his kneecap. The parents have not noticed any fevers, rashes, or recent illnesses. He has met all developmental milestones and has no significant past medical history. His temperature is (), heart rate is , and blood pressure is . Physical examination reveals a well-appearing boy who walks with a right-sided antalgic gait and a noticeable drop of the left hemipelvis during the stance phase on his right leg. There is no visible swelling or erythema over the right knee or hip. Palpation of the knee elicits no tenderness, and knee range of motion is full and painless. However, placing the right hip in internal rotation and abduction provokes mild discomfort and is noticeably restricted compared to the left side. Blood tests reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of and a leukocyte count of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Plain radiography of the pelvisCevap
- BDiagnostic aspiration of the right hip joint
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the right knee
- DInitiation of oral ibuprofen and rest for week
- EReassurance and routine follow-up in months