A 58-year-old man with advanced cirrhosis due to nonalcoholic steatohepatitis is evaluated in the hospital on day 3 of his admission. He originally presented from a skilled nursing facility with fever, worsening ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. On admission, diagnostic paracentesis revealed cloudy fluid with an absolute neutrophil count of 850/mm³. Due to his recent healthcare exposure and a history of urinary tract infections caused by extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL)-producing organisms, he was empirically started on intravenous meropenem and received appropriate albumin infusions.
Today, the patient is afebrile, alert, and fully oriented. His abdominal pain has resolved. Blood and ascitic fluid cultures obtained on admission have grown *Escherichia coli*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing demonstrates that the isolate is resistant to ampicillin but susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and meropenem.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient's infection?
- Transition to intravenous ceftriaxoneCevap
- BContinue intravenous meropenem for a total of 5 to 7 days
- CRepeat diagnostic paracentesis to ensure decreasing neutrophil count
- DTransition to oral rifaximin monotherapy
- EAdd intravenous vancomycin