An otherwise healthy 29-year-old woman is evaluated in the outpatient clinic for a 7-month history of absent menses. Menarche occurred at age 12, and her menstrual cycles were previously regular, occurring every 28 to 30 days. She runs 15 miles per week and consumes a balanced diet. Her body mass index is 22 kg/m². She takes no daily medications and has no history of chronic medical conditions. A urine human chorionic gonadotropin test is negative. Physical examination reveals normal breast development without galactorrhea. There is no evidence of hirsutism, acne, or clitoromegaly. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?
- Measurement of serum prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and follicle-stimulating hormoneCevap
- BMeasurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the pituitary gland
- DEndometrial biopsy
- EReassurance and observation for an additional 6 months
Cevap
The correct next step is the measurement of serum prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
The correct answer accurately reflects the standard algorithmic approach to secondary amenorrhea. Secondary amenorrhea is defined as the cessation of menses for at least 6 months in women with previously regular cycles. Once pregnancy is ruled out with a negative human chorionic gonadotropin test, the initial laboratory evaluation must assess the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis and rule out common systemic causes. Measuring serum prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) achieves this by screening for hyperprolactinemia, thyroid disease (such as primary hypothyroidism), and primary ovarian insufficiency.
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Initial Laboratory Evaluation of Secondary Amenorrhea
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