A 24-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit. She was admitted 22 hours ago in active labor, at which time spontaneous rupture of membranes occurred. Her current temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 118/min. Physical examination reveals a diffusely tender uterine fundus. Pelvic examination shows the cervix is 6 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal vertex is at 0 station. Purulent fluid is noted in the vaginal vault. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of 175/min with moderate variability and no decelerations. Maternal laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a hemoglobin of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Administer broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and allow labor to progressCevap
- BPerform an emergent cesarean delivery
- CAdminister an intravenous tocolytic agent
- DPerform an amnioinfusion
- ETransfuse one unit of packed red blood cells