Soru

A 29-year-old G1P0 at 38 weeks gestation presents to the labor and delivery ward with painful uterine contractions. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. Her temperature is $37.0^\circ\text{C}$ ($98.6^\circ\text{F}$), blood pressure is $118/76\text{ mmHg}$, and pulse is $82/\text{min}$. She is currently positioned in the left lateral decubitus position and receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of lactated Ringer solution. Cervical examination reveals dilation to $6\text{ cm}$, $100\%$ effacement, and $+1$ station. The amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously 3 hours ago, and the fluid was clear. Tocodynamometry shows uterine contractions occurring every 3 minutes and lasting 50 seconds. Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of $145/\text{min}$ with moderate variability. Over the past 30 minutes, there have been recurrent, abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate to $80/\text{min}$ that last for 40 seconds before rapidly returning to the baseline. These decelerations occur with most contractions but have a varied onset relative to the contraction peak. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?