A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 41 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor due to a post-term pregnancy. She is started on an intravenous oxytocin infusion. Two hours later, the electronic fetal monitor displays contractions occurring every 1 to 1.5 minutes and lasting 60 to 75 seconds. The fetal heart rate baseline is 135/min with minimal variability. The tracing also demonstrates recurrent, smooth, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of each contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends. The patient's blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, and her pulse is 88/min. Cervical examination reveals 5 cm dilation, 80% effacement, and -1 station. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the oxytocin infusionCevap
- BAdminister subcutaneous terbutaline
- CProceed to emergency cesarean delivery
- DPlace the patient in the supine position
- EPerform artificial rupture of membranes