A healthy 24-year-old patient is admitted in active labor at 39 weeks' gestation. She requests pain management and receives continuous lumbar epidural analgesia when her cervix is dilated to 5 cm. Fifteen minutes following the epidural bolus, the patient begins to feel lightheaded and nauseous. Her blood pressure drops from an admission baseline of 118/74 mm Hg to 82/45 mm Hg. Simultaneous continuous fetal monitoring demonstrates a baseline heart rate of 145/min that suddenly decreases to 85/min and has remained there for the past 3 minutes. The nurse immediately turns the patient onto her left side and administers a rapid intravenous bolus of isotonic crystalloid, but the maternal blood pressure remains 84/48 mm Hg and the prolonged fetal bradycardia persists. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous ephedrineCevap
- BTransfer to the operating room for immediate cesarean delivery
- CInitiate transcervical amnioinfusion
- DAdminister subcutaneous terbutaline
- EPerform artificial rupture of membranes