A -year-old woman is evaluated at the clinic for her annual wellness examination. She reports feeling well and has no pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, or irregular bleeding. Her medical history is unremarkable. She is in a monogamous relationship and uses a copper intrauterine device that was inserted three years ago. Vital signs include a blood pressure of mm Hg, heart rate of /min, and temperature of C ( F). Speculum examination shows a grossly normal cervix with the device strings visible at the external os. Bimanual examination reveals a mobile, anteverted uterus with no cervical motion tenderness or adnexal masses. A Papanicolaou test is obtained. One week later, the cytology report indicates negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy, but notes the presence of Actinomyces-like organisms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Continue the current contraceptive method and provide reassuranceCevap
- BPrescribe a two-week course of oral penicillin V
- CRemove the intrauterine device and send it for bacterial culture
- DRemove the intrauterine device and initiate oral metronidazole
- EPerform an endometrial biopsy to rule out pelvic actinomycosis