A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 36 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for management of severe preeclampsia. Upon admission, her blood pressure is mmHg. She is started on a continuous intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion. Initial laboratory studies reveal a platelet count of , an aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level of U/L, and an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level of U/L. Four hours after admission, the patient suddenly reports acute, excruciating right upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to her right shoulder. She also complains of severe lightheadedness and nausea. Her blood pressure is now mmHg, and her heart rate is /min. Physical examination demonstrates a rigid, distended abdomen with diffuse tenderness. Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring shows a baseline of /min, absent variability, and recurrent late decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Activate massive transfusion protocol and proceed to emergent laparotomyCevap
- BAdminister intravenous labetalol and reassess blood pressure
- CObtain an emergent bedside right upper quadrant ultrasound
- DDiscontinue magnesium sulfate and administer intravenous calcium gluconate
- EAdminister intravenous terbutaline and reposition the patient laterally