A 24-year-old primigravid patient at 40 weeks gestation is evaluated on the labor and delivery unit. She has been in the second stage of labor and actively pushing for the past 2 hours under continuous epidural analgesia. Until recently, the fetal heart rate tracing demonstrated a baseline of 140/min, moderate variability, and positive accelerations without decelerations. However, 4 minutes ago, the fetal heart rate suddenly decreased to 80/min and has remained at this rate. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 minutes and lasting 45 seconds. Maternal repositioning to the left lateral decubitus position, administration of a rapid intravenous fluid bolus, and discontinuation of oxytocin were immediately performed, but the fetal heart rate remains at 80/min. Cervical examination reveals complete dilation and 100% effacement. The fetus is in a vertex presentation, the position is direct occiput anterior, and the station is +3. The estimated fetal weight is 3,300 g. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Perform a vacuum-assisted vaginal deliveryCevap
- BProceed with an emergency cesarean delivery
- CAdminister intravenous terbutaline
- DInitiate a transcervical amnioinfusion
- EContinue maternal pushing and observe for fetal heart rate recovery