A 24-year-old woman returns to the clinic to review laboratory results. Three days ago, she presented with new-onset dyspareunia and an increased yellowish vaginal discharge. At that time, her temperature was 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure was 112/70 mm Hg, and pulse was 76/min. Pelvic examination revealed a markedly friable cervix with mucopurulent exudate, but no cervical motion or adnexal tenderness. A cervical swab was sent for testing, and the patient opted to defer empiric antibiotic therapy until a definitive diagnosis was made. Today, her nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) results return positive for *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and negative for *Chlamydia trachomatis*. Her medical history is significant for a severe allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, characterized by hypotension and respiratory distress requiring epinephrine. Based on current guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Intramuscular gentamicin and oral azithromycinCevap
- BIntramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
- COral azithromycin monotherapy
- DOral ciprofloxacin
- EOral doxycycline monotherapy