A 28-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 3-day history of progressively worsening pain and swelling in her genital area. The pain is exacerbated by sitting, walking, and friction from her clothing. She denies having any fever, chills, dysuria, or abnormal vaginal discharge. She has no significant past medical history. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals a 4.5-cm, exquisitely tender, fluctuant, erythematous mass located in the left posterior vaginal introitus at the 7 o'clock position. There is no surrounding induration or erythema extending beyond the margins of the mass, and no inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
- Incision and drainage with Word catheter placementCevap
- BRecommendation for frequent warm sitz baths and analgesics
- CPrescription for oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and clinical follow-up
- DHospital admission for intravenous cefoxitin and doxycycline
- EExcision of the affected gland and duct in the operating room