Soru

A $29$-year-old woman, G1P1, is evaluated on postpartum day $3$ for a new-onset fever, chills, and lower abdominal pain. Three days ago, she underwent a primary low transverse cesarean delivery due to active phase arrest. Her membranes had been ruptured for $22$ hours prior to delivery. Her temperature is $39.0^\circ\text{C}$ ($102.2^\circ\text{F}$), blood pressure is $112/72\text{ mmHg}$, pulse is $112/\text{min}$, and respirations are $18/\text{min}$. Physical examination reveals soft, non-tender breasts without erythema. Her abdomen is soft. The cesarean incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no erythema, induration, or purulent drainage. Palpation of the uterine fundus elicits severe tenderness. Pelvic examination reveals a normal-appearing cervix with moderate, foul-smelling lochia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?