A 71-year-old resident of a long-term care facility is evaluated for a three-day history of frequent, watery bowel movements and mild abdominal cramping. The patient recently completed a 7-day course of oral ciprofloxacin for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. Temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F), blood pressure is 120/78 mmHg, and pulse is 90/min. Physical examination reveals mild, diffuse abdominal tenderness without rebound or guarding. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,000/mm³. A stool nucleic acid amplification test is positive for Clostridioides difficile. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- AIntravenous ceftriaxone
- BIntravenous vancomycin
- COral metronidazole
- Oral fidaxomicinCevap
- EOral rifaximin
Cevap
Oral fidaxomicin
The correct option is oral fidaxomicin. The patient is presenting with a first episode of non-fulminant Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI), characterized by recent antibiotic use, watery diarrhea, and a positive stool toxin test without signs of shock or toxic megacolon. Current clinical guidelines recommend treating an initial episode of non-fulminant CDI with either oral fidaxomicin or oral vancomycin. Fidaxomicin is a macrocyclic antibiotic that is bactericidal against C. difficile, has minimal systemic absorption, and spares normal gut flora more effectively than vancomycin, leading to lower recurrence rates.
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The first-line treatment for an initial episode of non-fulminant Clostridioides difficile infection is oral fidaxomicin or oral vancomycin.