An otherwise healthy 23-year-old primigravida presents to the labor and delivery unit at 39 weeks gestation reporting regular, painful uterine contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. On admission, her cervix is dilated to 6 cm and 90% effaced, with the fetal vertex at -1 station. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is initiated. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of 140/min with moderate variability. There are recurrent, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin simultaneously with the onset of each contraction. The decelerations reach their nadir exactly at the peak of the contraction, and the heart rate returns to baseline precisely as the contraction ends. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ATransfer to the operating room for urgent cesarean delivery
- BAssist the patient into a lateral decubitus posture
- Proceed with expectant observation of laborCevap
- DAdminister a dose of subcutaneous terbutaline
- EBegin transcervical infusion of normal saline