A 45-year-old woman is evaluated in the clinic for persistent vaginal symptoms. Three weeks ago, she presented with a profuse, malodorous, yellowish-green vaginal discharge and severe vulvar pruritus. At that time, speculum examination revealed punctate macular hemorrhages on the ectocervix. A saline wet mount confirmed the presence of motile, flagellated organisms with multiple polymorphonuclear leukocytes. The vaginal pH was . She was prescribed a -day course of oral metronidazole, mg twice daily. During today's visit, she reports that her symptoms briefly improved but completely returned five days ago. The patient confirms strict adherence to the prescribed medication regimen and states she has abstained from all sexual contact since before her initial visit. Her medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Repeat saline microscopy of the discharge today demonstrates the same motile organisms seen previously. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate a 7-day course of oral tinidazoleCevap
- BPrescribe a 5-day course of intravaginal metronidazole gel
- CAdminister a single 2-gram dose of oral metronidazole
- DTransition to intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin
- EAdvise symptomatic relief with vaginal boric acid suppositories