A 26-year-old woman, G1P0, at 40 weeks and 2 days gestation, is currently in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Cervical examination reveals 7 cm dilation, complete effacement, and +1 station. Spontaneous rupture of membranes occurred four hours ago, revealing clear fluid. The patient is receiving an epidural for analgesia and an intravenous oxytocin drip to optimize uterine contractility. Maternal vital signs are within normal limits. The continuous fetal monitor shows a baseline heart rate of 142/min with moderate variability. The tracing also reveals gradual, symmetric drops in the fetal heart rate that consistently start after the peak of each uterine contraction, with the lowest point of the drop occurring after the contraction resolves. These drops are observed with more than half of the contractions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next action in the care of this patient?
- ATranscervical instillation of normal saline
- BTransfer to the operating room for immediate cesarean delivery
- Cessation of the intravenous oxytocin infusionCevap
- DObservation with uninterrupted electronic fetal monitoring
- EPlacement of an internal fetal heart rate monitor