Examkin

Soru

Zorluk: ZorAnxiety, OCD, and Trauma-Related Disorders

A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health center seeking help for extreme distress. For the past 4 months, he has experienced intrusive, distressing fears of contracting a fatal pathogen, leading him to wash his hands with bleach up to 30 times a day. He acknowledges that his fears are likely exaggerated but states the anxiety is unbearable unless he washes. His hands are severely excoriated and erythematous. Two days ago, an urgent care physician diagnosed a soft tissue infection on his right hand (confirmed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) and prescribed a 10-day course of oral linezolid. During the interview, the patient appears visibly depressed and reports feeling hopeless. Upon further psychiatric history, he reveals that a year ago, he had a distinct one-month period where he slept only 2 hours nightly, spoke so rapidly that friends could not understand him, and engaged in reckless hypersexual behavior. He is not taking any other medications. Which of the following are the most appropriate management steps for his psychiatric symptoms? (Select 2 options)

  1. Refer for cognitive behavioral therapy that focuses on habituation to feared stimuliCevap
  2. Commence treatment with a mood-stabilizing atypical antipsychoticCevap
  3. C
    Begin concurrent treatment with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor today
  4. D
    Prescribe an antidepressant monotherapy to begin after the antibiotic course finishes
  5. E
    Establish a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder given the 4-month symptom duration

Cevap

The most appropriate steps are to refer the patient for exposure and response prevention therapy and to commence a mood-stabilizing medication such as an atypical antipsychotic.
The correct combination recognizes that while SSRIs are typically first-line for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, this patient has two absolute contraindications to SSRI monotherapy: current use of linezolid (an antibiotic with MAOI properties, creating a risk for serotonin syndrome) and a history of Bipolar I Disorder (creating a risk for antidepressant-induced mania). Therefore, the safest and most effective concurrent management includes psychotherapy (exposure and response prevention) for the OCD and a mood-stabilizing atypical antipsychotic to address the bipolar depression without risking a manic switch.

Adım Adım Çözüm

1
Diagnose the patient's current psychiatric and medical conditions based on the clinical history.
The patient has Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD), Bipolar I Disorder (current episode depressed, history of mania), and a MRSA infection currently treated with linezolid.
Ego-dystonic obsessions and compulsions define OCD. The distinct period of decreased sleep, pressured speech, and impulsivity defines a past manic episode (Bipolar I).
2
Evaluate the pharmacological constraints for treating his OCD and depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), normally first-line for OCD, are contraindicated acutely due to linezolid (which has MAOI activity) and chronically as monotherapy due to the risk of precipitating mania in Bipolar I Disorder.
Combining an SSRI with an MAOI-like drug causes serotonin syndrome. Antidepressant monotherapy in bipolar disorder risks a manic switch.
3
Select safe, first-line, concurrent management strategies.
Exposure and response prevention (a specific form of cognitive behavioral therapy) is initiated for OCD, alongside a mood-stabilizing atypical antipsychotic to treat bipolar depression and safely augment OCD management.
This combination effectively targets the patient's distress while strictly adhering to safety guidelines regarding his comorbidities and concurrent antibiotic use.

Anahtar Kavram

Pharmacological constraints in the management of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder complicated by Bipolar I Disorder and concurrent MAOI-like antibiotic therapy.
Bu soruyu puanla

Konular

Anxiety, OCD, and Trauma-Related Disorders

Bu konudan daha fazla soru