A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor due to oligohydramnios. An intravenous oxytocin infusion is initiated. Four hours later, her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Cervical examination reveals the cervix is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at 0 station. The external fetal monitor demonstrates a fetal heart rate baseline of 145/min with moderate variability. Over the past 15 minutes, there are recurrent, symmetric, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that consistently begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends. Uterine contractions are occurring every 1 to 1.5 minutes and lasting 60 to 70 seconds. The patient is repositioned to the left lateral decubitus position and administered an intravenous fluid bolus, but the fetal heart rate pattern persists. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the oxytocin infusionCevap
- BAdminister intravenous terbutaline
- CPerform an emergent cesarean delivery
- DInitiate transcervical amnioinfusion
- EPrepare for an operative vaginal delivery