A -year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for worsening abdominal pain, progressive distension, and high fever. He was admitted days ago for a complicated urinary tract infection and has been receiving intravenous ceftriaxone. Three days ago, he developed profuse, watery diarrhea, which abruptly ceased this morning. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals a markedly distended, tympanic abdomen with diffuse tenderness and absent bowel sounds.
Laboratory studies show:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Leukocyte count | ||
| Serum creatinine | (Baseline: ) | |
| Serum lactate |
A stool nucleic acid amplification test is positive for *Clostridioides difficile*. A portable plain abdominal radiograph demonstrates a transverse colon diameter of , loss of haustral markings, and no evidence of free air.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
- Enteral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazoleCevap
- BIntravenous vancomycin and enteral metronidazole
- CEnteral fidaxomicin monotherapy
- DIntravenous meropenem
- EConservative management with nasogastric decompression and intravenous fluids