A -year-old G1P0 at weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit. At , her cervical examination reveals dilation, effacement, and the fetal head at station. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed, yielding clear fluid. Due to a previous period of slow cervical change, an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) is placed and an intravenous oxytocin infusion is started.
By ( hours later), her cervical examination remains completely unchanged at dilation, effacement, and station. Review of the IUPC tracing over the last hour shows contractions per minutes. The contractions have peak pressures of and a resting tone of . The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of , moderate variability, and no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Cesarean deliveryCevap
- BContinue expectant management for more hours
- CIncrease the oxytocin infusion rate
- DOperative vaginal delivery
- EProphylactic amnioinfusion