A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in spontaneous labor. She requests and receives epidural anesthesia for pain management. Her labor progresses without complication, and her cervix becomes completely dilated. She is instructed to begin pushing. Three hours later, a vaginal examination reveals the cervix is 10 cm dilated and 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at +2 station in the direct occiput anterior position. The maternal temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. Uterine contractions occur every 2 to 3 minutes and are strong to palpation. Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 135/min, moderate variability, and symmetric, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin and end with each uterine contraction. The nadir of these decreases coincides precisely with the peak of each contraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Continued maternal pushingCevap
- BCesarean delivery
- CVacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
- DIntravenous oxytocin administration
- EMaternal repositioning to the left lateral decubitus position