A 31-year-old gravida 2, para 1 at 39 weeks and 4 days gestation is evaluated on the labor and delivery unit. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated. She is currently in the second stage of labor and has been actively pushing for 45 minutes with adequate epidural analgesia. The cervix is completely dilated and 100% effaced. The fetal presenting part is the vertex in the direct occiput anterior position at +3 station. Maternal vital signs show a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg, and a heart rate of 88/min. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 minutes. Over the past 5 minutes, the continuous fetal heart rate monitor demonstrates an abrupt decrease in the baseline to 75/min with absent variability and no return to the previous baseline of 145/min. Immediate repositioning of the patient to the left lateral decubitus position and administration of an intravenous normal saline bolus do not improve the tracing. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Perform an operative vaginal deliveryCevap
- BInitiate emergency cesarean delivery
- CAdminister subcutaneous terbutaline
- DContinue coached maternal pushing
- EAdminister a therapeutic amnioinfusion