A 29-year-old nulliparous woman at 39 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit due to a concerning fetal heart rate tracing. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She was admitted in active labor and her cervix is currently 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetal presenting part at +1 station. Uterine contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting approximately 60 seconds. Spontaneous rupture of membranes occurred 2 hours ago, revealing clear fluid. The continuous electronic fetal monitor demonstrates a baseline heart rate of 135/min with moderate variability. With each of the last four contractions, there is an abrupt decrease in the fetal heart rate to 85/min that reaches its nadir in 15 seconds and resolves quickly as the contraction subsides. The decelerations last approximately 45 seconds each. The patient is promptly repositioned to the left lateral decubitus position and administered an intravenous fluid bolus. However, the subsequent three contractions demonstrate the exact same fetal heart rate pattern. Maternal blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AAdministration of subcutaneous terbutaline
- BEmergency cesarean delivery
- Initiation of an amnioinfusionCevap
- DAugmentation with intravenous oxytocin
- EContinued expectant management