A 34-year-old G4P3 patient at 37 weeks of gestation is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to sudden-onset, severe, and continuous lower abdominal pain accompanied by dark red vaginal bleeding. Her previous pregnancies were delivered vaginally at term without complications. She has a history of chronic hypertension. Her current blood pressure is 165/100 mm Hg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 20/min. Physical examination reveals a rigid, hypertonic, and diffusely tender uterus. Speculum examination confirms a moderate amount of dark blood in the vaginal vault with no active cervical lesions. The cervix is 2 cm dilated and 50% effaced. Fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 90/min, minimal variability, and recurrent late decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate cesarean deliveryCevap
- BAdministration of intravenous terbutaline
- CExpectant management with continuous fetal monitoring
- DReassurance for normal physiologic bloody show
- EComprehensive transabdominal ultrasonography