A 25-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit for active labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. Cervical examination reveals 5 cm dilation, 100% effacement, and 0 station. Artificial rupture of membranes was performed 1 hour ago, yielding clear amniotic fluid. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes and palpate as strong. External fetal monitoring shows a baseline heart rate of 140/min with moderate variability. Over the last 30 minutes, there are abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate to 85/min that last for 40 to 50 seconds before rapidly returning to baseline. These decreases occur in association with 60% of the uterine contractions, and their timing varies relative to the peak of the contractions. The patient is currently positioned in the left lateral decubitus position and is receiving a bolus of intravenous lactated Ringer solution, but the fetal heart rate pattern remains unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiation of amnioinfusionCevap
- BImmediate cesarean delivery
- CAdministration of intravenous terbutaline
- DPlacement of a fetal scalp electrode
- EContinuation of current management without intervention