A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in spontaneous labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. Four hours after admission, her cervical examination reveals 6 cm dilation, 90% effacement, and -1 station. She is currently receiving an intravenous oxytocin infusion for labor augmentation due to inadequate cervical progression. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Continuous fetal monitoring shows a baseline heart rate of 145/min with moderate variability. Over the last 30 minutes, there is an average of 7 contractions in a 10-minute window. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates symmetric, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to baseline after the contraction ends. These decelerations are occurring with nearly every contraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the intravenous oxytocinCevap
- BPrepare for an emergent cesarean delivery
- CAdminister a transcervical amnioinfusion
- DContinue current management and observe closely
- EAdminister intravenous terbutaline