A 24-year-old nulliparous woman at 40 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit due to painful uterine contractions. She has no significant past medical history, and her prenatal care has been routine. On admission, her blood pressure is 118/76 mm Hg and her pulse is 78/min. Cervical examination shows 5 cm dilation and 90% effacement. The fetal head is engaged. A lumbar epidural is placed for pain control. Twenty minutes later, the patient complains of dizziness and nausea. Repeat maternal vital signs show a blood pressure of 82/45 mm Hg and a pulse of 105/min. The continuous fetal monitor displays a baseline heart rate of 125/min, minimal variability, and symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate that nadir after the peak of the uterine contractions. Uterine contractions are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes and lasting 60 seconds.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- AInitiation of transcervical amnioinfusion
- BIntravenous administration of a beta-2 adrenergic agonist
- Maternal left lateral decubitus positioning and rapid intravenous hydrationCevap
- DTransfer to the operating room for cesarean delivery
- EContinued expectant management with reassurance