A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 10 weeks gestation presents to the clinic for an initial prenatal visit. She reports feeling well, noting only mild morning nausea and bilateral breast tenderness. She describes a slight increase in clear vaginal discharge over the past few weeks but denies any pruritus, malodor, dyspareunia, or dysuria. Her temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, and heart rate is 78/min. Pelvic examination reveals a closed, nulliparous-appearing cervix without friability, erythema, or visible lesions. A small amount of clear, non-malodorous mucus is present in the vaginal vault. Bimanual examination shows a soft, appropriately enlarged uterus with no adnexal tenderness. Routine prenatal laboratory screening is performed. The cervical nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) returns positive for *Chlamydia trachomatis* and negative for *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
- A single oral dose of azithromycinCevap
- BA 7-day course of oral doxycycline
- CA single intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone plus a single oral dose of azithromycin
- DA 7-day course of oral levofloxacin
- EReassurance and repeat NAAT screening in the third trimester