A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well and has no specific complaints. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no daily medications. She is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks alcohol occasionally in social settings. Her last cervical cancer screening with a Papanicolaou (Pap) test and human papillomavirus (HPV) co-testing was 3 years ago and the results were normal. During the visit, the patient expresses anxiety about her cancer risk. She reports that her maternal aunt was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 48, and her maternal grandmother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 62. The patient asks if she should undergo genetic testing for a hereditary cancer syndrome. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination, including a clinical breast examination, reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer a brief familial risk assessment toolCevap
- BRefer the patient directly for BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic testing
- CReassure the patient and advise initiating screening mammography at age 40
- DOrder a serum CA-125 level and transvaginal ultrasound
- ESchedule the patient for a screening breast magnetic resonance imaging